Hi everyone,
I have been reading this forum for quite sometime with interest but never actually got around to posting - even though after 3.5 years of living in Brisbane I do have quite a few thoughts as replies to many posts and look forward to sharing my threepence worth in due course.
My first post is rather prosaically about finance though
I have read quite conflicting responses on this and other forums relating to my situation and would therefore like to get a definitive answer if possible and Im quite sure someone here will know, so please do share.
We moved to Brisbane - the best place in Australia - oh dear, hope I haven't already spawned a whole raft of new postings in September 2009. At the time we were really not sure we would be staying here for the duration and so decided not to sell the house. In any case the GFC ensured falling value and limited selling potential; it just didn't seem sensible. I am now potentially regretting the decision!
A simple calculation will show that I have been non resident for tax purposes from the Uk for over 3 years and during that time the house has been rented out whilst we have been in Brisbane on a 457 visa. Finally, and somewhat belatedly we decided to apply for PR, submitting the application in September 2012 - we expect a decision within the next few months; hopefully a positive one; fingers crossed!
The bank have now imposed a new gratuitous 1.5% levy on the interest rates, declaring it a commercial buy to let mortgage. I know most do this now. Of course I make a tax return each year in the UK and declare all the rent, but we are always beneath the personal tax threshold.
If we are staying here we would finally like to buy a house and that almost certainly means selling the UK one. Stupidly I never thought to check if there was a time limit after which CGT would apply.
On this forum I have read that so long as you sell it within 6 years and it is your only UK house you are not liable for CGT, but elsewhere I have read the time limit is 3 years, which we are now just outside.
Does any one actually know if we are liable and if so, is that for the entire difference between what we paid in 2004 and the sale value whenever that is?
Thanks in advance to anyone providing answers and also for the enjoyable time reading other posts. I promise to reply to a few myself in future
Chris